江浙沪招生考试网

1.What are three important characteristics of the Cisco Catalyst 2960G-24TC switch? (Choose three.) 
A. Each Ethernet 10/100/1000 port supports up to six priority queues each with two drop thresholds. 
B. does not support 802.3af PoE 
C. uses the GBIC/SFP form factor for dual-purpose ports 
D. provides a maximum forwarding bandwidth of 32 Gbps 
E. contains 24 Ethernet 10/100/1000 ports and 2 dual-purpose slot 
Answer: BCD 
2.What are three important characteristics of the Cisco Catalyst C3560G-48PS switch? (Choose three.) 
A. supports Layer 3 IP routing services 
B. supports class 2, 802.3af PoE up to a maximum of 24 ports 
C. uses the GBIC/SFP form factor for dual-purpose ports 
D. provides a maximum forwarding bandwidth of 32 Gbps 
E. contains 48 Ethernet 10/100/1000 ports and 2 dual-purpose slots 
Answer: ACD 
3.What are three important characteristics of the Cisco Catalyst C3750G-48PS switch? (Choose three.) 
A. provides a maximum forwarding bandwidth of 32 Gbps 
B. supports class 2, 802.3af PoE up to a maximum of 24 ports 
C. provides GBIC support for a single 10 Gigabit Ethernet interface 
D. contains 48 Ethernet 10/100/1000 ports and 4 dual-purpose slots 
E. can group up to nine switches into a single stack using Cisco StackWise 
Answer: ADE 
4.Your customer needs to manage branch router configurations using local staff but is concerned that the Cisco
CLI is too complicated. What should you recommend to mitigate this concern? 
A. The Cisco IOS CLI has context-sensitive help to ease the CLI configuration task. 
B. The Cisco IOS CLI Setup command provides guided steps for most configuration tasks. 
C. The Cisco IOS SDM simplifies configuration tasks. 
D. Cisco's website has configuration documentation available for all currently supported releases. 
E. Cisco Device Manager (CDM) has easy-to-use GUI wizards for most router configuration tasks. 
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Answer: C 
5.Which three are correct when applying Cisco IOS QoS features at the branch office? (Choose three.) 
A. Unidirectional applications may require bandwidth allocation in only one direction. 
B. On slow WAN links, TCP header compression should always be implemented for the voice traffic class. 
C. AutoQoS VoIP can automatically classify voice bearer and control traffic as well as video traffic. 
D. Branch routers are a strategic place to deploy NBAR policies for worm identification and policing. 
E. Classification and marking will need to be performed on the branch router's LAN edge in the ingress direction. 
Answer: ADE 
6.Refer to the exhibit. What are three key benefits of implementing this branch solution using the components
listed? (Choose three.)  
A. supports standard 802.3af PoE 
B. provides feature parity with the Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series of switches 
C. provides integrated configuration of both routing and switching functions under a single Cisco IOS instance. 
D. switch ports can be stacked with external Catalyst Series switches using Cisco StackWise technology 
E. maximizes concurrent routing and switching performance by using local processors and switching engines 
Answer: ABE 
7.Which two standards enable the PVDM module on the ISR to provide secure communications with IP Phones?
(Choose two.) 
A. SRTP 
B. AES encryption 
C. RUDP 
D. RSA signature 
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E. MD5 hash 
F. IPSec 
Answer: AB 
8.In most cases, when designing a small campus network, what is the top priority for the client? 
A. network redundancy 
B. support for applications 
C. high performance and availability 
D. cost effectiveness 
Answer: D 
9.To improve performance on the ISR platforms when supporting concurrent integrated services, the network
modules, HWICs, AIMs, and DSPs connect directly into which hardware component? 
A. custom ASIC 
B. SCSI bus 
C. PCI bus 
D. crossbar bus 
E. CPU 
Answer: A 
10.Refer to the exhibit. Which type of campus network is represented?  
A. small 
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B. medium 
C. large 
D. server farm 
Answer: A 
11.When using the ISR to implement a NAC solution, the ISR is configured to act as which NAC component? 
A. 802.1x supplicant 
B. PVS 
C. posture agent 
D. NAD 
E. AAA server 
Answer: D 
12.Which three statements are correct regarding SDMv2.0? (Choose three.) 
A. supports smart wizards with built-in intelligence about recommended Cisco IOS configurations for different
use scenarios 
B. extends its scope to other functions besides security, such as QoS policy configuration 
C. provides industry-leading security management tool available for all Cisco router and Catalyst switch platforms 
D. supports only HTTPS access, and not HTTP 
E. supports role-based access 
Answer: ABE 
13.The PVDM slots on the motherboard of the Cisco 2800 and 3800 ISR are used for what purpose? 
A. to support built-in VPN acceleration providing high-performance Crypto offload 
B. to support the high-performance AIM modules 
C. to support the onboard TDM switch 
D. to support the integrated DSPs for voice termination, conferencing and transcoding 
E. to support the EVM 
Answer: D 
14.Which three of these are benefits of deploying MPLS VPN to provide remote-site connectivity? (Choose
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three.) 
A. supports any-to-any routing between all sites 
B. provides enterprise traffic separation similar to Frame Relay or ATM 
C. dynamically establishes spoke-to-spoke tunnels as required 
D. simplifies hub router configuration where only a single multipoint GRE tunnel interface is used to support all
remote sites 
E. traffic-engineered tunnels can be configured to provide customized routing of enterprise traffic across the SP
network 
Answer: ABE 
15.Refer to the exhibit. You are required to upgrade the network of a two-story branch office building to support
wireless LAN access throughout the building. What three configuration tasks should be completed on the building
switches to maximize the efficiency of the wireless design? (Choose three.)  
A. limit broadcast traffic to the access point by enabling VLAN filtering 
B. limit multicast traffic to the access point by enabling IGMP snooping 
C. enable VTP on the access point to allow VLAN support over the wireless network 
D. extend ISL VLAN trunks to the access points for VLAN transport 
E. limit the number of VLANs connecting to any access point to a maximum of 16 
Answer: ABE 
16.You are required to upgrade the network of a multistory branch office building to support Cisco 7970 IP
Phones throughout. Given that each phone uses 15.4 W, how many phones can a Cisco Catalyst 3750 support
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using Cisco Intelligent Power Management in a 48-port PoE configuration? 
A. 8 
B. 16 
C. 24 
D. 32 
E. 48 
Answer: C 
17.Which three are benefits of using the Cisco Cluster Management Suite Software to manage multiple switches?
(Choose three.) 
A. can be accessed through any standard Web browser 
B. manages up to 16 geographically dispersed switches simultaneously 
C. manages up to 24 geographically dispersed switches simultaneously 
D. provides Web-based interface for configuring and managing Catalyst OS functions 
E. provides Web-based interface for configuring and managing Cisco IOS functions 
Answer: ABE 
18.Refer to the exhibit. What are three benefits of extending advanced QoS to the edge of the network? (Choose
three.)  
A. enables immediate classification and marking of traffic 
B. guarantees end-to-end bandwidth 
C. minimizes traffic on the backbone 
D. enables easier setup of per-user policies 
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E. frees up router processing power 
Answer: ADE 
19.Which Cisco 7600 module allows the router to be used as an aggregator for high-speed remote WAN links and
transparent LAN services? 
A. CIP services 
B. link aggregator 
C. optical services 
D. transport services 
E. Enhanced FlexWAN 
F. multiflex trunking 
Answer: E 
20.Refer to the exhibit. The policy map VoiceOut is an outbound service policy on interface serial 0/0. What
overall congestion management feature is in use?  
A. priority queuing 
B. custom queuing 
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C. low latency queuing 
D. weighted fair queuing 
E. class-based weighted fair queuing 
Answer: C 
21.When designing a Cisco 7600 core network, what oversubscription ratio represents Cisco's recommended best
practice? 
A. 5:1 
B. 10:1 
C. 20:1 
D. 50:1 
E. 100:1 
Answer: C 
22.What benefit does the Cisco Catalyst 2970 Series Switch provide that is not available in the Cisco Catalyst
2950 Series Switches? 
A. gigabit Ethernet at the access layer 
B. multicast management to the network edge 
C. advanced QoS to the network edge 
D. security filtering to the network edge 
E. web-based Cisco CMS software 
Answer: A 
23.What queue-scheduling algorithm does the Optical Services Module PXF use to provide QoS features? 
A. FIFO 
B. Modified Deficit 
C. Weighted Round Robin 
D. Versatile Traffic Management Services 
Answer: D 
24.What is the maximum data rate for the StackWise interconnect on Cisco Catalyst 3560 Series Switches? 
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A. 800 Mbps 
B. 1.6 Gbps 
C. 3.2 Gbps 
D. 16 Gbps 
E. 32 Gbps 
Answer: E 
25.Refer to the exhibit. To which type of network does this design principle most likely apply?  
A. small 
B. medium 
C. large 
D. service provider 
Answer: C 
26.Which three features are supported by the Cisco 7600 Series router? (Choose three.) 
A. high performance, with a 720-Gbps capacity per slot 
B. IP/MPLS provider edge router 
C. Metro Ethernet connectivity 
D. all models are NEBS compliant 
E. 3-, 6-, 9-, 13-slot chassis 
Answer: ABC 
27.An administrator wishes to connect two Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switches in a back-to-back configuration.
A straight-through Category 5e cable is used. What is the result of making this connection? 
A. The connection will fail as the TX and RX pins are not properly aligned. 
B. The connection will fail because the connection requires a Category 6 or higher cable. 
C. The connection will fail; a back-to-back connection requires a crossover cable. 
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D. The connection will succeed after manually configuring one of the interfaces as a crossover port. 
E. The connection will succeed as the switches will automatically adjust to the cable type. 
Answer: E 
28.In the Cisco Catalyst 6513 Switch, which slots support the Supervisor Engine 720 and Supervisor Engine 32? 
A. any slot 
B. slots 1 and 2 
C. slots 5 and 6 
D. slots 7 and 8 
E. slots 12 and 13 
Answer: D 
29.When issuing the Cisco IOS command show power in the Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch, which four types of
information can be gathered? (Choose four.) 
A. IOS revision level 
B. operational state 
C. line card revision 
D. power supply fan status 
E. line card administrative state and slot location 
F. power capacity in watts and amperage by chassis and line card 
Answer: BDEF 
30.Which two Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series chassis have vertically aligned slots? (Choose two.) 
A. 6506 
B. 6509 
C. 6513 
D. 6509-NEBS 
E. 6509-NEBS-A 
F. 6513-NEBS-A 
Answer: DE 
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31.In the Cisco Catalyst 6500-E Series chassis, what are three key chassis specifications? (Choose three.) 
A. requires Cisco IOS 12.2(1)SXD and beyond 
B. three-slot chassis supports CEF720 line cards 
C. is backward-compatible with all existing software versions 
D. six- and nine-slot chassis support only 6000-W power supplies 
E. supports all existing supervisors, line cards, switch fabrics, and software releases 
Answer: BCE 
32.Refer to the exhibit. Interface serial 1 is a 128-kbps Frame Relay connection. What does the command
frame-relay adaptive-shaping becn configure the router to do?  
A. allows bursts to 80 kbps and sets the BECN bit when 72 kbps is exceeded 
B. allows bursts to 128 kbps and sets the BECN bit when 80 kbps is exceeded 
C. sends a frame with the BECN bit set when the committed burst size is exceeded 
D. allows bursts to 80 kbps and throttles traffic down to the minCIR value when a frame is received with the
BECN bit set 
E. allows bursts to 128 kbps and throttles traffic down to the minCIR value when a frame is received with the
BECN bit set 
Answer: E
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33.In a Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switch, TCAM resources enable what features? 
A. SSO when a supervisor fails 
B. stateful software updates without a power cycle or reset 
C. fast MAC address lookup by object versus memory address 
D. wire-speed services independent of wire-speed forwarding 
Answer: D 
34.In a Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch, in which slots can the Sup2 card be installed? 
A. any slot 
B. slots 1 and 2 
C. slots 3 and 4 
D. slots 5 and 6 
E. slots 1 through 9 
Answer: D 
35.Given a Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switch with redundant supervisors, what feature allows phone calls to
remain up in the event of a supervisor failure? 
A. HSRP 
B. SSO 
C. CEF 
D. NSF 
E. NetFlow 
Answer: B 
36.What is the difference between the two redundant states that a Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series power supply can
operate in? 
A. In redundant mode, one power supply works until it reaches 50 percent power consumption, then the load is
shared equally across the power supplies. 
B. In redundant mode, both power supplies work at 50 percent of capacity, and in nonredundant mode the output
of each power supply is configured by the user. 
C. In redundant mode, one power supply works at 100 percent of capacity while the other provides instantaneous
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backup, and in combined mode the output of each power supply is configured by the user. 
D. In redundant mode, both power supplies work at 50 percent of capacity, and in a nonredundant mode, the
power available to the system is the combined power capability of both power supplies. 
Answer: D 
37.In a Cisco Catalyst 6500-E Series chassis, why is a special type of fan used? 
A. Nonredundant power mode generates less heat, and consequently a slower fan speed can be used. 
B. It provides additional cooling, which is required by new line cards that generate more heat due to increased
power consumption. 
C. A dual-speed fan is required to support the redundant and nonredundant power-mode features of the Catalyst
6500-E Series. 
D. A larger fan is required to provide increased airflow because the Catalyst 6500-E Series has a smaller form
factor; there isn't more heat, there is less room. 
Answer: B 
38.What three network applications are enabled via Cisco NetFlow? (Choose three.) 
A. application profiling 
B. user profiling 
C. security analysis 
D. quality of service 
E. topology mapping 
F. network modeling 
Answer: ABC 
39.Which three of these are features of the Cisco Catalyst 4900 Series Switches? (Choose three.) 
A. one RU 
B. stackable 
C. fixed configuration 
D. Power over Ethernet 
E. redundant power supplies 
F. Layer 2 through Layer 7 switching capabilities 
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Answer: ACE 
40.Which of these is a deployment focus of the Cisco Catalyst 4900 Series Switches? 
A. network core 
B. limited-space server rack 
C. high-density wiring closet 
D. medium to large branch offices 
Answer: B 
41.What are three reasons to design Layer 3 routing into the core of a campus LAN environment? 
A. to implement security 
B. to design scalable networks 
C. to implement address structure 
D. to improve backbone performance 
E. to remove spanning tree from the core 
Answer: BCE 
42.What are three sources of information used to characterize an existing customer network? (Choose three.) 
A. network audit 
B. traffic analysis 
C. organization input 
D. data sheets 
E. server requirements document 
Answer: ABC 
43.Which capability of EIGRP allows a failing router to retain the routing information of an EIGRP peer until the
failed router has returned to normal operating behavior? 
A. NSF awareness 
B. DUAL 
C. feasible successor 
D. AD 
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Answer: A 
44.Refer to the exhibit. Given the network topology, what function is OSPF Router E performing?  
A. internal router 
B. area border router 
C. stub router 
D. autonomous system border router 
Answer: D 
45.Refer to the exhibit. Based on this network diagram and output from a show cdp neighbors Cisco IOS
command, on which network device is the command being executed? 
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A. BBSW2 
B. DSW11 
C. ASW11 
D. ASW12 
Answer: B 
46.Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the EIGRP routing protocol. Distribution router 1 loses the link to
the corporate network. How should the remote spoke router be configured to prevent it from being the
next-lowest-cost path to network 10.3.1.0?  
A. Disable split horizon. 
B. Configure it as an EIGRP stub router. 
C. Enable route filtering. 
D. Configure a floating static route to network 10.3.1.0.  

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Answer: B 
47.Refer to the exhibit. Which would be a benefit of designing the OSPF network as shown?  
A. Routes can be redistributed within the individual areas. 
B. The backbone area does not need any internal routers. 
C. Route summarization is enabled by default in this type of configuration. 
D. Route summarization configuration at the ABRs is greatly simplified. 
Answer: D 
48.Your client provides custom application hosting to very specialized customers. Its network has grown rapidly
and has been hit with service interruptions that have been costly in terms of lost connectivity. The immediate
concern of the client is to provide high availability to the Internet and server farm connections. Which three types
of hardware would be applicable for the Internet or server farm locations in the client network? (Choose three.) 
A. Cisco 3800 Series 
B. Cisco 7100 Series 
C. Cisco 7500 Series 
D. Catalyst 4500 Series 
E. Catalyst 6500 Series 
Answer: CDE 
49.Your client has a pair of single-processor Cisco 7500 routers connecting its enterprise to an ISP. It has deployed
HSRP between these routers, but it also needs to provide high availability on each router to support its internal
and external customers. What would you recommend to your client to resolve this issue? 
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A. Deploy SSO on the current routers. 
B. Install redundant route processors in each of the routers and deploy NSF/SSO. 
C. Install redundant route processors in each router and deploy RPR+. 
D. Configure a virtual third router as a redundant fallback for operation with NSF/SSO. 
Answer: B 
50.You have a client that currently has a single connection to an ISP. Your client is growing rapidly and would like
to provide more capacity to the Internet without losing the ability to support high availability. Which methodology
will support dual-homed connections to the same ISP and also support high availability? 
A. VRRP 
B. HSRP 
C. RPR+ 
D. GLBP 
Answer: D