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思科认证Cisco 640-863 题库

日期:2015/8/23 19:54:44 来源:本站原创 访问量:
1. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer in this design? 
A. QoS should be performed only in the core.
B. Load balancing should never be implemented or used in the core.
C. Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation.
D. It is acceptable to use a partial mesh in the core if it is connected to each device by multiple paths.
E. Policy-based traffic control is implemented in the core to enable prioritization, ensuring the best performance
for all time-critical applications.
Answer: D 
2. Which statement accurately describes one difference between a small office and medium office topology?
A. Small offices commonly use Rapid PVST+ for Layer 3 deployments.
B. Medium offices commonly use integrated route and switching platforms.
C. Medium offices use integrated 10/100/1000 interfaces as Layer 2 trunks.
D. Medium offices use external access switches to support LAN connectivity.
Answer: D 
3. Which three factors best justify WAN link redundancy between geographically dispersed sites? (Choose three.)
A. important traffic flows
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B. lack of speed
C. high link utilization
D. uncertain reliability
E. excessive packet transmission rate
F. high expense of transmitting data
Answer: ABD 
4. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe why Model A is the recommended design for routing
between Building Distribution switches and Campus Core switches? (Choose two.) 
A. It uses timer-based non-deterministic convergence.
B. It is software-based, providing fast convergence to the remaining path.
C. Routes are not summarized from distribution to the core.
D. The Layer 3 redundant equal cost links support fast convergence.
E. A link or box failure does not require routing protocol convergence.
Answer: DE 
5. An organization needs a WAN Transport technology that meets these criteria:  
       has a low initial cost 
       provides low-to-medium BW 
       has medium-to-high latency and jitter 
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Which technology would you suggest?
A. DSL
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. wireless
E. analog modem
Answer: A 
6. Which two of these represent a best practice implementation of a Split MAC LWAPP deployment in a Cisco
Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a shared SSID which in turn maps to a common shared
VLAN.
B. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID which in turn maps to a unique VLAN.
C. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID which in turn maps to a common shared
VLAN.
D. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to the access point for translation into SSID(s).
E. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller for translation into
SSID(s).
F. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller. Then the 802.1Q packet is
encapsulated in LWAPP and sent to the access point for transmission over the SSID(s).
Answer: BE 
7. Which two statements represent advantages that the top-down network design process has over the bottom-up
network design process? (Choose two.)
A. is able to provide the big picture
B. utilizes previous experience
C. takes less time to design a network
D. identifies appropriate technologies first
E. provides a design for current and future development
Answer: AE
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8. Which two of these are required for wireless client mobility deployment when using a Cisco Unified Wireless
Network? (Choose two.)
A. assigned master controller
B. matching mobility group name
C. matching RF group name
D. matching RF power
E. matching security
F. matching RF channel
Answer: BE 
9. Which two VoIP characteristics are affected most by codec choice? (Choose two.)
A. voice quality
B. silent packet handling
C. voice packet header size
D. bandwidth required for voice calls
Answer: AD 
10. Which H.323 protocol controls call setup between endpoints?
A. H.225
B. H.245
C. RAS
D. RTCP
Answer: B 
11. A company is designing a worldwide IPv6 network with duplicated file servers at multiple locations. Each file
server contains identical reference information. Which IPv6 address type would be used to allow each end station
to send a request to the nearest file server using the same destination address, regardless of the location of that end
station?
A. unicast
B. anycast
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C. multicast
D. broadcast
Answer: B 
12. Given a VoIP network with these attributes:  
     Codec: G.728 
     Bit rate: 16 Kbps 
     WAN Bandwidth: 256 Kbps 
     Packet Header: 6 bytes 
     Payload: 40 bytes 
     CRTP: Yes  
How many calls can be made?
A. 7 calls
B. 8 calls
C. 13 calls
D. 14 calls
Answer: C 
13. The topology map in the draft design document should cover which two layers of the OSI model? (Choose
two.)
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. session
F. application
Answer: AC 
14. Which two techniques can reduce voice packet transfer delay across a link of less than 512 kbps? (Choose
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two.)
A. deploy LFI
B. increase queue depth
C. increase link bandwidth
D. extend the trust boundary
E. deploy software compression
Answer: AC 
15. Your company's Cisco routers are operating with EIGRP. You need to join networks with an acquisition's
heterogeneous routers at 3 sites, operating with EIGRP and OSPF. Which describes the best practice for routing
protocol deployment?
A. apply OSPF throughout both networks
B. apply one-way redistribution exclusively at each location
C. apply two-way redistribution exclusively at each location
D. apply two-way redistribution at each location with a route filter at only one location
E. apply two-way redistribution at each location with a route filter at each location
F. apply EIGRP with the same autonomous system throughout both networks
Answer: E 
16. A Cisco security mechanism has the following attributes:  
   it is a sensor appliance
   it searches for potential attacks by capturing and analyzing traffic 
   it is a "purpose-built device"
   it is installed passively
   it introduces no delay or overhead  
Which Cisco security mechanism is this?
A. IKE
B. PIX
C. HIPS
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D. NIDS
E. HMAC
Answer: D 
17. You are designing a small branch office that requires these attributes:  
    support for 60 users 
    the growth capacity to add another 15 users soon 
    redundant access 
    higher bandwidth between the Layer 2 switch and routing to the WAN  
Which branch office topology or technology must be used?
A. two-tier
B. loop-free
C. three-tier
D. EtherChannel
E. integrated routing and switching
Answer: D 
18. Which two of these best describe the implementation of a WAN Backup design over the Internet? (Choose
two.)
A. a best-effort method
B. requires no ISP coordination or involvement
C. bandwidth guaranteed based on interface configuration
D. designed as an alternative to a failed WAN connection
E. implemented with a point-to-point logical link using a Layer 2 tunnel
Answer: AD 
19. Given a VoIP network with these attributes:  
   Codec: G.711
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   WAN bandwidth: 768Kbps
   Packet Header: 6 bytes 
   Payload: 160 bytes 
   CRTP: No  
How many calls can be made?
A. 7 calls
B. 8 calls
C. 9 calls
D. 11 calls
E. 13 calls
Answer: C 
20. RST Corporation is planning to upgrade its current network. The chief technology officer has supplied a
topology diagram and an IP addressing scheme of the current network during an interview.  
RST has been growing at about twenty percent per year. It has been difficult to maintain customer support at a
satisfactory level. Therefore, the RST board has met with and directed the chief technology officer to look into
network improvements.  
Which two items are most relevant in documenting RST's business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. projected growth estimates
B. network performance requirements
C. existing network topologies
D. improved customer support requirements
E. the IP addresses assigned by the ISP
Answer: AD 
21. The Cisco Data Center Network Architecture comprises which two Cisco SONA layers? (Choose two.)
A. Interactive Services
B. Business Applications
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C. Network Infrastructure
D. Collaboration Applications
E. WAN/Internet
Answer: AC 
22. A lightweight access point is added to a working network. Which sequence will it use to associate itself with a
wireless LAN controller?
A. master, primary, secondary, tertiary, greatest AP capacity
B. greatest AP capacity, primary, secondary, tertiary, master
C. primary, secondary, tertiary, master, greatest AP capacity
D. primary, secondary, tertiary, greatest AP capacity, master
Answer: C 
23. Refer to the exhibit. All primary links are T1s. The customer wants to have a backup to each remote office
from the Headquarters office.  
Which two types of backup links would be viable solutions? (Choose two.) 
A. VPDN
B. shadow SVC
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C. dial backup routing
D. permanent secondary WAN link
Answer: CD 
24. Which Cisco security solution offers protection against "day zero" attacks?
A. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco IOS Firewall
D. Cisco IOS IPS
E. Cisco Traffic Anomaly Detector
Answer: B 
25. A customer has the following Enterprise Campus design requirements:  
   at least 10 Gbps of bandwidth 
   network runs of up to 40km
   no concern for transmission medium cost  
Which transmission medium should you recommend to this customer?
A. shielded twisted pair
B. unshielded twisted pair
C. multimode fiber
D. single-mode fiber
E. wireless
Answer: D 
26. Which two routing protocols operate over NBMA point-to-multipoint networks without the use of
point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
A. RIPv1
B. RIPv2
C. IGRP
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D. EIGRP
E. OSPF
F. IS-IS
Answer: DE 
27. Which two of the following statements represent a preferred wireless LWAPP implementation? (Choose two.)
A. verify open ports for:  
Layer 2 LWAPP on ethertype OxABAB 
Layer 3 LWAPP on TCP 12222 and TCP 12223
B. verify open ports for:  
Layer 2 LWAPP on ethertype OxBBBB 
Layer 3 LWAPP on UDP 12222 and UDP 12223
C. verify open ports for:  
Layer 2 LWAPP on ethertype OxBABA 
Layer 3 LWAPP on UDP 12222 and TCP 12223
D. use of Layer 3 LWAPP is preferred over Layer 2 LWAPP
E. use of Layer 2 LWAPP is preferred over Layer 3 LWAPP
Answer: BD 
28. What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three.)
A. Use organizational input.
B. Perform a traffic analysis.
C. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application.
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees.
E. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network.
F. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer's existing network.
Answer: ABE 
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29. Which two statements best describe Cisco Wireless LAN Guest Access in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network?
(Choose two.)
A. Dedicated guest VLANs are extended throughout the network to the access points for path isolation.
B. Dedicated guest VLANs are only extended to the wireless controllers in the network to ensure path isolation.
C. Dedicated guest access in the DMZ extends from the origination to the termination controllers without
dedicated guest VLANs.
D. Guest tunnels can originate and terminate on any wireless controller platform.
E. Guest tunnels have limitations on which wireless controllers can originate the tunnel.
F. Guest tunnels have limitations on which wireless controllers can terminate the tunnel.
Answer: CF 
30. What are the two most likely driving forces motivating businesses to integrate voice and data into converged
networks? (Choose two.)
A. Voice has become the primary traffic on networks.
B. WAN costs can be reduced by migrating to converged networks.
C. Their PSTNs cannot deploy features quickly enough.
D. Data, voice, and video cannot converge on their current PSTN structures.
E. Voice networks cannot carry data unless the PRI circuits aggregate the BRI circuits.
Answer: DE 
31. Which two statements best describe the implementation of Overlay VPN connectivity for remote access in the
Enterprise Edge WAN module? (Choose two.)
A. It must use Layer 2 labels to forward packets
B. It uses dedicated point-to-point links.
C. Bandwidth is provisioned on a site-to-site basis.
D. The ISP actively participates in customer routing.
E. Optimum routing between customer sites requires a full mesh of virtual circuits.
Answer: CE 
32. Which two statements best describe an OSPF deployment? (Choose two.)
A. ABR provides automatic classful network boundary summarization.
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B. ABR requires manual configuration for classful network summarization.
C. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from stub areas via ASBR.
D. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ASBR.
E. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ABR.
Answer: BD 
33. Which three of these describe the best practice for Cisco wireless outdoor Mesh network deployment?
(Choose three.)
A. RAP implemented with 20 to 32 MAP nodes
B. RAP implemented with 20 or fewer MAP nodes
C. mesh hop counts of 8 to 4
D. mesh hop counts of 4 or fewer
E. client access via 802.11b/g and backhaul with 802.11a
F. client access via 802.11a and backhaul with 802.11b/g
Answer: BDE 
34. A Cisco SONA architecture layer is described as follows:  
   The layer's IT resources are interconnected across a converged network foundation. 
   The layer's IT resources include servers, storage, and clients. 
   The layer represents how resources exist across the network. 
   The customer objective for the layer is to have anywhere/anytime connectivity.  
Which Cisco SONA architecture layer is being described?
A. Application
B. Physical
C. Integrated Transport
D. Interactive Services
E. Networked Infrastructure
Answer: E 
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35. Which two statements about IPv6 addresses are true? (Choose two.)
A. Leading zeros are required.
B. Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros.
C. Two colons (::) are used to separate fields.
D. A single interface will have multiple IPv6 addresses of different types.
Answer: BD 
36. A customer wishes to implement VoIP using centralized call-processing. In addition, the customer wishes to
establish a balance between good voice quality and good bandwidth utilization. Which codec would you suggest?
A. G.711
B. G.723.1
C. G.726
D. G.729
Answer: D 
37. Which type of trunk is required in order to connect a fax machine to a PBX?
A. inter-office
B. Foreign Exchange Office
C. central office
D. Foreign Exchange Station
E. intra-office
Answer: D 
38. Your company uses OSPF for internal routing. The company will be connected to VendorA via a single
dedicated link and to VendorB via redundant dedicated links. Both vendors also use OSPF for internal routing.
Which of the following deployments describes the best intra-domain routing practice in this situation?
A. Connect your company to both VendorA and VendorB using existing OSPF.
B. Redistribute the routes on each link between your company and the vendors to a shared EIGRP routing
protocol.
C. Use IBGP to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
D. Use static routes to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
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E. Use static routes to reach both VendorA and VendorB.
Answer: D 
39. Which two capabilities of NetFlow accounting assist designers with network planning? (Choose two.)
A. the decoding and analyzing of packets
B. the monitoring of processor time on network devices
C. the monitoring of user network utilization
D. the calculation of packet and byte counts of network traffic
E. the presentation of a time-based view of application usage on the network
Answer: CD 
40. When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in which Enterprise Campus layer do the Enterprise
Edge and Enterprise WAN modules establish their connection?
A. Campus Core
B. Building Access
C. Enterprise Branch
D. Building Distribution
E. Enterprise Data Center
Answer: A 
41. Which information should a network summary report identify?
A. new network features
B. customer requirements
C. infrastructure shortcomings
D. customer requirement modifications
E. actions needed to support the existing network
F. actions needed to support existing network features
Answer: C 
42. Which statement best describes Call Admission Control?
A. It extends QoS capabilities to protect voice from excessive data traffic.
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B. It provides endpoint registration control.
C. It protects voice from voice.
D. It provides endpoint bandwidth control.
Answer: C 
43. Western Associated News Agency recently acquired a large news organization with several sites, which will
allow it to expand to worldwide markets. The new acquisition includes these connectivity technologies:  
    Frame Relay 
    ATM 
    SONET 
    cable 
    DSL 
    wireless  
From a Layer 1 viewpoint, which Enterprise Edge module will be most affected?
A. ISP
B. PSTN
C. E-Commerce
D. WAN/MAN
E. Edge Distribution
F. Internet Connectivity
Answer: D 
44. Which of these accurately describes dial backup routing?
A. it always uses distance vector routing protocols
B. it always uses permanent static routes
C. the router intiates the dial backup link when a failure is detected on the primary link
D. it is supplied by the service provider as a secondary PVC at no additional charge
E. once the backup link is activated it will remain active even after the primary link is restored
Answer: C
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45. A Cisco Self-Defending Network has been installed, but DoS attacks are still being directed at e-commerce
hosts. The connection rate at the Internet firewall was limited, but the problem persists. What more can be done?
A. Move the servers to the DMZ.
B. Install all relevant operating system patches.
C. Block the servers' TCP traffic at the Internet firewall.
D. Block the servers' UDP traffic at the Internet firewall.
Answer: B 
46. After a period of rapid growth, FloCzar Boats is seeking better network management tools. Managers have
developed this needs list:  
     Move from static to dynamic device information. 
     Gain information to assist in long-term trend analysis. 
     Concentrate on Layer 4 monitoring.  
Which management protocol will most help FloCzar achieve its goals?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol
B. RMON
C. SNMP
D. RMON2
E. NetFlow
Answer: D 
47. A manufacturing company has decided to add a website to enhance sales. The web servers in the E-Commerce
module must be accessible without compromising network security. Which two design recommendations can be
made to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Use private and public key encryption.
B. Move the E-Commerce servers to the WAN module.
C. Use intrusion detection on the E-Commerce server farm.
D. Limit the number of incoming connections to the E-Commerce module.
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E. Place E-Commerce servers and application servers on isolated LANs (DMZs).
Answer: CE 
48. You design a network with the following network addresses: 
192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0 
Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses?
A. 192.128.0.0/24
B. 192.128.171.128/3
C. 192.128.168.0/21
D. 192.128.175.0/3
E. 192.128.0.0/16
Answer: C 
49. Which statement correctly describes queuing in environments supporting teleworkers?
A. CQ is for time-sensitive protocols.
B. Queuing occurs on the outbound interface.
C. Priority queuing guarantees some level of service to all traffic.
D. Hardware queues are configured for appropriate PQ, CQ, or WFQ.
E. WFQ is the Cisco IOS default on all WAN links regardless of speed.
Answer: B 
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50. Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. extends the network to remote users
B. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
C. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
D. reduces the number of physical connections
E. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
Answer: DE 
51. Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two.)
A. video streaming on the LAN
B. security between departments
C. the segmenting of collision domains
D. the segmenting of broadcast domains
E. the use of multivendor equipment
F. a limited corporate budget
Answer: BD 
52. Which three mechanisms are required to deploy QoS on an IP WAN? (Choose three.)
A. traffic classification
B. Call Admission Control
C. queuing and scheduling
D. link efficiency techniques
E. traffic shaping
F. bandwidth provisioning
Answer: BDE 
53. A network design includes private addressing, but there is also a need for two or three network devices to each
be assigned a unique public address so they can be accessed from the Internet. Which technique will satisfy this
requirement?
A. Dynamic NAT
B. Static NAT
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C. DHCP
D. VPN tunneling
Answer: B 
54. Which statement can a network designer use to describe route summarization to an IT manager?
A. It is the grouping of multiple contiguous subnets into one Class A, B, or C IP address to minimize routing table
size.
B. It is the grouping of multiple discontiguous subnets to increase routing performance.
C. It is the grouping of multiple contiguous networks and advertising as one large network.
D. It is the grouping of ISP network addresses to minimize the number of routes to the Internet.
Answer: C 
55. A network is being designed to meet the requirements listed. 
Within the enterprise network:  
    All routers are Cisco 3800 Series routers running the latest Cisco IOS release. 
    The fastest convergence time possible is required. 
    Unequal cost load-balancing is required.  
For Internet connections: 
    
     A single link is used to connect to a single ISP.  
Which two routing protocols should be used?(Choose two.)
A. Use OSPF as the IGP within the enterprise.
B. Use EIGRP as the IGP within the enterprise.
C. Use Internal BGP as the IGP within the enterprise.
D. Use External BGP between the enterprise and the ISP.
E. Use EIGRP between the enterprise and the ISP.
F. Use Static (Default) routing between the enterprise and the ISP.
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Answer: BF 
56. Which statement identifies a benefit obtained when using a top-down network design plan?
A. allows quick responses to design requests
B. facilitates design based on previous experience
C. incorporates customer organizational requirements
D. is less time-consuming than using a bottom-up approach
E. provides a more detailed picture of the desired network
Answer: C 
57. Lightweight access points are being deployed in remote locations where others are already operational. The
new access points are in a separate IP subnet from the wireless controller. OTAP has not been enabled at any
locations. Which two methods can the AP use to locate a wireless controller? (Choose two.)
A. local subnet broadcast
B. NV-RAM IP address
C. DHCP
D. primary, secondary, tertiary
E. DNS
F. master
Answer: CE 
58. Which Cisco security solution can quarantine and prevent non-compliant end stations from accessing the
network until they achieve security policy compliance?
A. Cisco Secure Connectivity
B. Adaptive Security Appliance
C. Access Control Server
D. Network Admission Control
E. Network Intrusion Prevention System
F. Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System
Answer: D 
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59. In the Cisco branch office design, what categorizes an office as large?
A. between 50 and 100 users and a three-tier design
B. between 50 and 100 users and a single-tier design
C. between 100 and 200 users and a two-tier design
D. between 100 and 200 users and a three-tier design
E. over 200 users and a two-tier design
Answer: D 
60. For which technology is IPsec required for a site-to-site enterprise WAN/MAN architecture?
A. ATM
B. ISP Service
C. Frame Relay
D. SP MPLS VPN
E. self-deployed MPLS
Answer: B 
61. Which two statements best describe intradomain route summarization? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF and RIP automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
B. EIGRP and OSPF automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
C. EIGRP and RIP automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
D. EIGRP and OSPF must be manually configured to summarize at non-classful boundaries.
E. EIGRP and OSPF automatically summarize at non-classful boundaries.
Answer: CD 
62. Which three pieces of information should be documented for each step of each phase in a design
implementation plan? (Choose three.)
A. step description
B. design document references
C. easy guidelines in case of failure
D. estimated implementation time
E. simple implementation guidelines
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F. estimated rollback time in case of failure
Answer: ABD 
63. At which stage in the PPDIOO process would you analyze a customer's network in order to discover
opportunities for network improvement?
A. Plan
B. Prepare
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Design Assessment
Answer: C 
64. Refer to the exhibit.  
A standard, Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the distribution layer? 
A. #1
B. #2
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C. #3
D. #4
Answer: B 
65. A global corporation has an internal network with the following characteristics: 
 2,000,000+ hosts
 10,000+ routers
 Internet connectivity
 high traffic volumes with business partners and customers 
Which statement best describes what a flexible IPv6 strategy would look like for this corporation?
A. Both hosts and routers would run dual stack.
B. Hosts would run IPv4 and routers would run native IPv6.
C. Hosts would run dual stack and routers would run IPv4 only.
D. Hosts would run IPv6 and routers would run native IPv6.
Answer: A 
66. Which two implementation plan principles best describe how to deal with potential failures? (Choose two.)
A. A good implementation plan.
B. A successful test network test.
C. A test should be included at every step.
D. A detailed rollback procedure for each implementation step.
E. A table of failure points, rollback steps, and estimated rollback times.
Answer: CD 
67. Which two methods are used to enhance VPN performance on Cisco ISRs? (Choose two.)
A. built-in hardware-based encryption acceleration
B. SSL Acceleration Network Module
C. high-performance VPN encryption AIM
D. VPN Service Adapter
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E. VPN Acceleration Module
F. VPN Shared Port Adapter
Answer: AC 
68. Which three security measures can be used to mitigate DoS attacks that are directed at exposed hosts within
the E-Commerce module? (Choose three.)
A. Partition the exposed hosts into a separate LAN or VLAN.
B. Use firewalls to block all unnecessary connections to the exposed hosts.
C. Use a VPN concentrator (IPSec) to protect and verify each connection to the exposed host or hosts.
D. Use LAN switch VTP pruning to separate hosts on the same segment.
E. Use NIDSs and HIPSs to detect signs of attack and to identify potentially successful breaches.
Answer: ABE 
69. You are designing IPv6 into an existing IPv4 network. Which strategy can you use to allow both address
schemes to coexist, thus facilitating migration?
A. bridge between the two networks
B. deploy stateful address assignments
C. run both the IPv6 and IPv4 stacks on devices
D. redistribute between IPv6-capable and non-IPv6-capable routing protocols
E. enable anycast capability in the routing protocol
Answer: C 
70. Which of the following Cisco router services performs network traffic analysis to assist in documenting a
customer's existing network?
A. MRTG
B. NetMon
C. NetFlow
D. SNMP MIB compiler
Answer: C 
71. Refer to the exhibit. You are documenting the existing network of a customer with a large installed Cisco
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network. The routers listed are in use on the network. 
Which two additional pieces of information would be the most valuable in completing your documentation of
these routers? (Choose two.) 
A. error statistics
B. interface options
C. software revisions
D. power requirements
E. management protocols
Answer: BC 
72. A network design document is being prepared for a customer. Which three network design elements must be
included? (Choose three.)
A. data sources
B. design details
C. proof of concept
D. implementation plan
E. organizational policies
Answer: BCD 
73. Refer to the exhibit.  
A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the core layer?
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A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4
E. #5
Answer: C 
74. In a Cisco CatOS switch, what is the recommended practice when configuring switch-to-switch
intercommunications to carry multiple VLANs for Dynamic Trunk Protocol?
A. auto to auto_negotiate
B. auto to auto_no_negotiate
C. on to on_negotiate
D. desirable to desirable_negotiate
E. desirable to desirable_no_negotiate
F. disable Dynamic Trunk Protocol when operating in the distribution layer
Answer: D 
75. What is the benefit of deploying a gatekeeper in an H.323 IP telephony network?
A. increases redundancy by allowing each gateway to maintain a copy of the dial plan
B. reduces configuration complexity by centralizing the dial plan
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C. provides spatial redundancy through the use of HSRP
D. provides load balancing via GUP when alternate gatekeepers are deployed
Answer: B 
76. Which of these is the next step after the design phase in the PPDIOO process?
A. Order the equipment.
B. Develop a high-level migration plan.
C. Create a pilot or a prototype network.
D. Develop the implementation plan in as much detail as possible.
E. Identify which network management protocol will be used for which function.
Answer: D 
77. Which three terms describe the primary functions of the distribution layer of the campus network design
hierarchy? (Choose three.)
A. provides end-user connectivity
B. provides high speed transport
C. provides QoS services
D. enforces security policies
E. provides WAN connections
F. connects access devices to the core backbone
Answer: CDF 
78. Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing network?
(Choose three.)
A. staff input
B. visual inventory
C. network audit
D. traffic analysis
E. server statistics
Answer: ACD 
TestInside    640-863 
79. Which of these is the best routing deployment for a single dedicated link to an ISP for Internet access?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. Static
E. OSPF
Answer: D 
80. Refer to the exhibit. Which module is the Enterprise WAN module? 
A. Enterprise A
B. Enterprise B
C. Enterprise C
D. Enterprise D
E. Enterprise E
F. Enterprise F
Answer: C 
TestInside    640-863 
81. Which three types of WAN topologies can be deployed in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Enterprise Edge
WAN module? (Choose three.)
A. ring
B. star
C. full mesh
D. core
E. edge
F. collapsed core
G. partial mesh
Answer: BCF 
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