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思科认证Cisco 350-001 题库

日期:2015/8/23 12:59:32 来源:本站原创 访问量:
1. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing protocol for this network is EIGRP, if the link between R1 and
R3 failed, what would R4 receive from R3? 
A. R4 would receive an update noting R3's higher cost to reach 172.30.1.0/24.
B. R4 would not receive any updates or queries, since R3 would simply move to the path through R2.
C. R4 would receive a query, since R3 would mark 172.30.1.0/24 as active when the link between R1 and R4
failed.
D. R4 would not receive any packets, since R3 is not using the link to R1 to reach 172.30.1.0/24.
Answer: A 
2. Multicast addresses in which range are reserved by the IANA for administratively scoped multicast?
A. 239.0.0.0?39.255.255.255
B. 232.0.0.0?32.255.255.255
C. 224.0.0.0?24.0.0.255
D. 233.0.0.0?33.255.255.255
Answer: A 
3. Which two of these are reasons why some ports do not reply to RSTP proposals? (Choose two.)
A. the age time has expired
B. the remote bridge is in the discarding state
C. the remote bridge does not understand RSTP BPDU
D. the remote bridge is in the forwarding state
Answer: BC 
4. You are using IPv6, and would like to configure EIGRPv3. Which three of these correctly describe how you can
perform this configuration? (Choose three.)

A. EIGRP for IPv6 is directly configured on the interfaces over which it runs.
B. EIGRP for IPv6 is not configured on the interfaces over which it runs, but if a user uses passive-interface
configuration, EIGRP for IPv6 needs to be configured on the interface that is made passive.
C. There is a network statement configuration in EIGRP for IPv6, the same as for IPv4.
D. There is no network statement configuration in EIGRP for IPv6.
E. When a user uses a passive-interface configuration, EIGRP for IPv6 does not need to be configured on the
interface that is made passive.
F. When a user uses a non-passive-interface configuration, EIGRP for IPv6 does not need to be configured on the
interface that is made passive
Answer: ADE 
5. Which information is carried in an OSPFv3 intra-area-prefix LSA?
A. IPv6 prefixes
B. link-local addresses
C. solicited node multicast addresses
D. IPv6 prefixes and topology information
Answer: A 
6. Which three statements accurately describe a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Each router sends routing information to all nodes in the flooding domain.
B. Each router sends all or some portion of its routing table to neighboring routers.
C. Each router individually builds a picture of the entire flooding domain.
D. Each router has knowledge of all other routers in the flooding domain.
E. Each router is only aware of neighboring routers.
F. Each router installs routes directly from the routing updates into the routing table.
Answer: ACD 
7. Which three of these statements about penultimate hop popping are true? (Choose three.)
A. It is used only for directly connected subnets or aggregate routes.
B. It can only be used with LDP.
C. It is only used when two or more labels are stacked.
D. It enables the Edge LSR to request a label pop operation from its upstream neighbors.
E. It is requested through TDP using a special label value that is also called the implicit-null value.
F. It is requested through LDP using a special label value that is also called the implicit-null value.
Answer: ADF 
8. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has connected a packet-capturing device to the common broadcast
segment in this network, on which all the routers are configured to run OSPF. By examining various show
commands on the routers, the engineer discovers that the designated router is R1. By examining the captured
packets, the engineer also discovers that every new LSA that R3 sends to the link, R1 resends to the link a few
moments later. 
Is this correct OSPF operation, and why or why not? 
A. This is correct operation; flooding new LSA information to the other routers is a function of the designated
router.
B. This is incorrect operation; each new LSA should only be flooded onto a given broadcast link once.
C. This is correct operation; OSPF uses a scheme whereby each LSA flooded onto a link is acknowledged by the
receiving router through a reflood back onto the link of the same information.
D. This is incorrect operation; it indicates that while R3 can send packets to R1, R1 cannot send packets to R3.
Answer: A 
9. You are configuring the Cisco IOS DHCP Server to handle DHCP in a LAN. Which two of these configurations
are required in order for DHCP to work? (Choose two.)
A. configure manual bindings
B. configure a DHCP address pool
C. configure a DHCP server boot file
Testinside       350-001
D. exclude those IP addresses that will not be used in DHCP
E. configure the timeout value for ping packets
Answer: BD 
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which switching feature is being tested? 
A. loop guard
B. PortFast
C. root guard
D. BDPU guard
Answer: A 
11. Refer to the exhibit. In this network, R1 is configured not to perform autosummarization within EIGRP. What
routes will R3 learn from R2 through EIGRP?
Testinside       350-001 
A. 172.30.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24; EIGRP only performs autosummarization at the edge between two major
networks.
B. 172.30.0.0/16 and 10.1.2.0/24; R2 will perform autosummarization, although R1 will not.
C. Since R2 is configured without autosummarization, it will not propagate the 172.30.1.0/24 route.
D. 172.30.0.0/8 and 10.0.0.0/8.
Answer: A 
12. Refer to the exhibit. In this network, what will be the impact at R4 if the link between R1 and R2 fails? 
A. R3 will generate a new summary (type 3) LSA when the link between R1 and R2 fails. When R4 receives this
new summary LSA, it will run SPF, recalculating its shortest path tree.
B. R4 will not receive any new LSAs of any type, nor will it run SPF.
C. R4 will receive a router (type 1) LSA from R2, since it has lost its connection to R2. When R4 receives this
LSA, it will run SPF to recalculate the shortest path tree.
D. R2 will generate a new network (type 2) LSA, since it has lost its connection to 10.1.1.4/30. When R4 receives
this LSA, it will run SPF to recalculate the shortest path three.
Answer: B 
13. Refer to the exhibit. R7 (in Area 1) is redistributing routes that it learned from EIGRP into the OSPF process.
R12 (in Area 4) receives a packet destined for a network in the EIGRP domain. What routing table entry will R12
have that will enable it to forward the packet?

A. the specific network entry redistributed by R7 and propagated through the OSPF domain
B. a summary route generated by R7 and propagated through the OSPF domain
C. a default route generated by R7 and propagated through the OSPF domain
D. a summary route generated by R4 and propagated to R12
E. a default route generated by R4 and propagated to R12
Answer: E 
14. The Border Gateway Protocol tries to install the best path for a prefix into the Routing Information Base and
fails. Which three of these are possible reasons for this failure? (Choose three.)
A. memory failure
B. a route with a worse administrative distance is already present in the IGP routing table
C. a route with a better administrative distance is already present in the IGP routing table
D. the best path for the prefix is already installed in the RIB
E. the number of routes in VRF exceeds the route limit configured for the VRF instance
Answer: ACE 
15. You are designing your network to be able to use trunks. As part of this process you are comparing the ISL and
802.1Q encapsulation options. All of these statements about the two encapsulation options are correct except
Testinside       350-001
which one?
A. Both support normal and extended VLAN ranges.
B. ISL is a Cisco proprietary encapsulation method and 802.1Q is an IEEE standard.
C. ISL encapsulates the original frame.
D. Both support native VLANs.
E. 802.1Q does not encapsulate the original frame.
Answer: D 
16. On what type of ports would STP PortFast BPDU guard be most appropriate?
A. root ports
B. designated ports
C. host ports
D. alternate ports
Answer: C 
17. Refer to the exhibit. This exhibit shows the NAT configuration for Router A and the output for a ping issued
from device 171.68.200.48 and destined to 172.16.47.142. Based on this information, what change must be made
to Router A in order for the ping to work?
Testinside       350-001 
A. reload the router
B. clear the route cache
C. add a static route
D. configure IP as classless
E. load a newer IOS image
Answer: D 
18. Which of these statements about anycast RPs is correct?
A. Anycast RPs cannot be used in conjunction with Auto-RPs.
B. After a failure of one of the anycast RPs, the PIM network will reconverge on the remaining anycast RP or RPs
in less than one second.
C. After a failure of one of the anycast RPs, the PIM network will reconverge on the remaining anycast RP or RPs
in roughly the same time that it takes unicast routing to reconverge.
D. The anycast RPs must reside within the same IGP domain.
Answer: C 
19. Refer to the exhibit. R2 does not have any 10.100.x.x routes in either its routing table or its BGP table. What is
the most likely cause of the problem? 
    350-001 
A. The advertised BGP next hop is not in R2's routing table.
B. BGP will not advertise a route that is not in the IP routing table.
C. BGP will not advertise a route unless it is synchronized with the IGP.
D. The serial link between the routers in not participating in the BGP process.
Answer: B 
20. Frame Relay traffic shaping is enabled on a WAN interface with the following settings: CIR = 768 kb/s, Bc =
2000 , Be = 7680. What is the time interval Tc?
A. 2.6 ms
B. 10 ms
C. 7.4 ms
D. 12.6 ms
Answer: B 
21. Refer to the exhibit. What type of issue does this Router A error log indicate?
Testinside       350-001 
A. physical layer problem
B. HSRP standby router configuration error
C. HSRP router interfaces are in the wrong VLAN
D. PortFast is enabled on both HSRP routers
Answer: A 
22. Which two of these parameters are used to determine a forwarding equivalence class? (Choose two.)
A. IP prefix
B. Layer 2 circuit
C. RSVP request from CE for bandwidth reservation
D. BGP MED value
Answer: AB 
23. Which two of these statements about WCCP version 2 are false? (Choose two.)
A. It allows for the redirection of traffic other than HTTP, including a variety of UDP and TCP traffic.
B. Only one router can redirect content requests.
C. Multiple routers can redirect content requests.
D. It works only with IP networks.
E. The Cache Engine defines one central "home router" and stores it in its memory.
F. The Cache Engine defines one central "home router," and stores it in its memory.
Testinside       350-001
Answer: BF 
24. Poor performance, collisions, and intermittent communication between a PC and a switch port may be the
result of which of these?
A. the wrong wire category is being used
B. the port on the switch is in the errdisable state
C. there are mismatching duplex modes
D. there are mismatching speeds
Answer: C 
25. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all necessary configurations in this network are correct for routing. Subnet
10.1.1.0/24 is sourced by Router A and advertised via BGP, OSPF, and EIGRP. Eventually, Router G learns of this
subnet. What is the routing protocol and administrative distance that Router G used to reach subnet 10.1.1.0/24?  
A. EIGRP, AD 5
B. EIGRP, AD 90
C. EIGRP, AD 170
D. OSPF, AD 110
E. BGP, AD 20
F. BGP, AD 200
Answer: E 
     350-001 
26. If a port configured with STP loop guard stops receiving BPDUs, the port will be put into which state?
A. learning state
B. listening state
C. forwarding state
D. root-inconsistent state
Answer: D 
27. Two routers are connected over a serial link, and are configured to run EIGRP on all interfaces. You examine
the EIGRP neighbor table on both routers (using the show ip eigrp neighbor command) and see that the router
connected over the serial link is listed as a neighbor for a certain amount of time, but is periodically removed from
the neighbor table. None of the routes from the neighbor ever seem to be learned, and the neighbor transmission
statistics (SRTT, RTO, and Q Count) seem to indicate that no packets are being transmitted between the neighbors.
What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. While multicast packets are being successfully sent over the link, unicast packets are not.
B. This is correct behavior for the first few minutes of EIGRP neighbor formation. After four or five cycles, it
should straighten itself out and the neighbor relationship should work.
C. The hello or hold intervals are set differently on the two routers.
D. There is a bug in the EIGRP code that needs to be fixed.
Answer: A 
28. All of these are Spanning Tree Protocol IEEE 802.1w port states except which one?
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. Blocking
Answer: D 
29. If an LSR receives a labeled packet for which there is no label entry in the LFIB, which action does the router
perform?
A. It uses a default label for forwarding.
Testinside       350-001
B. It strips the label and does a lookup in the FIB using the IP destination address.
C. It drops the packet.
D. It uses LDP to create an LSP and a new entry in the LFIB for that label.
Answer: C 
30. WRED is most effective under what circumstances?
A. most traffic is TCP-based
B. an equal distribution of TCP and UDP traffic
C. a mix of TCP, UDP, and non-IP traffic
D. very high bandwidth interfaces such as Gigabit Ethernet
Answer: A 
31. In Layer 2 topologies, spanning-tree failures can cause loops in the network. These unblocked loops can cause
network failures because of excessive traffic. Which two Catalyst 6500 features can be used to limit excessive
traffic during spanning-tree loop conditions? (Choose two.)
A. loop guard
B. storm control
C. storm suppression
D. broadcast suppression
E. BPDU guard
Answer: BD 
32. A (*,G) multicast entry is associated with which three multicast types or features? (Choose three.)
A. shared tree
B. source tree
C. dense mode
D. sparse mode
E. bidirectional PIM
Answer: ADE 
33. Having multiple unknown unicast frames in a switch would most likely deplete which of these resources?
Testinside       350-001
A. available MAC addresses in the system
B. available memory for frame buffering
C. available bandwidth
D. electrical power
E. TCAM entries
Answer: C 
34. What is the mathematical relationship between the committed information rate (CIR), committed burst (Bc),
and committed rate measurement interval (Tc)?
A. CIR = Be / Tc
B. Tc = CIR / Bc
C. CIR = TC / Bc
D. Tc = Bc / CIR
Answer: D 
35. Which two of these best describe an OSPF stub area? (Choose two.)
A. All routers in a stub area must be configured as stub.
B. Each stub area always has an ASBR attached to it.
C. A stub area will not accept routes belonging to an external AS.
D. Only summary routes from an external AS can be injected into a stub area.
E. To reach outside networks, the routers in a stub area use a default route which is injected into the area by the
ASBR.
Answer: AC 
36. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this configuration is true? 
       350-001 
A. ACL 101 needs to have at least one permit statement in it or it will not work properly.
B. The ip inspect test out command needs to be used instead of the ip inspect test in command to make the
configuration work.
C. Ethernet 0 is the trusted interface and Ethernet 1 is the untrusted interface.
D. Ethernet 0 needs an inbound access list to make the configuration work.
E. Ethernet 0 needs an outbound access list to make the configuration work.
Answer: C 
37. All of these switch port errors are indications of duplex mismatches on 10/100/1000 IEEE 802.3u Gigabit
Ethernet ports except which one?
A. alignment errors
B. FCS errors
C. multiple collisions
D. runts
E. excessive collisions
F. late collisions
Answer: C 
38. For an MPLS label, if the stack bit is set to 1, which of these is correct? 
     350-001
A. The stack bit is reserved for future use.
B. The label is the last entry in the label stack.
C. The stack bit will only be used when LDP is the label distribution protocol.
D. The stack bit is for Cisco implementations exclusively and will only be used when TDP is the label distribution
protocol.
E. The label is the top entry in the label stack and will remain set to 1 until the last entry, the bottom label, is
reached.
Answer: B 
39. Which three of these are characteristics of UniDirectional Link Detection? (Choose three.)
A. UDLD detects wiring mistakes when receive and transmit twisted pairs are not connected to the correct
pinouts.
B. UDLD detects wiring mistakes when receive and transmit fibers are not connected to the same port on the
remote side.
C. UDLD protects against situations in which light is received on both sides of a fiber Gigabit Ethernet link (link
up) but the fiber-optic hardware is not communicating correctly.
D. UDLD prevents spanning-tree loops caused by one-way link conditions.
E. UDLD prevents spanning-tree loops caused by link speed and duplex configuration mismatches.
Answer: BCD 
40. Which three of these statements correctly describe Source Specific Multicast? (Choose three.)
A. SSM uses shared trees only.
B. SSM uses shortest path trees only.
C. The use of SSM is recommended when there are many sources and it is desirable to keep the amount of mroute
state in the routers in the network to a minimum.
D. There are no RPs to worry about.
E. Is best suited for applications that are in the many-to-many category.
F. Is best suited for applications that are in the one-to-many category.
Answer: BDF 
41. Spanning Tree Protocol IEEE 802.1s defines the ability to deploy which of these? 
   350-001
A. one global STP instance for all VLANs
B. one STP instance for each VLAN
C. one STP instance per set of VLANs
D. one STP instance per set of bridges
Answer: C 
42. IP multicast routing uses (S,G) entries for multicast packet forwarding. Which addresses are used in the S
entries?
A. GLOP addresses
B. SDP / SAP addresses
C. Source Specific Multicast addresses
D. any class A, class B, or class C host addresses
E. the block of administratively scoped multicast addresses
Answer: D 
43. What will be the results of enabling IP Source Guard on an untrusted switch port that does not have DHCP
snooping enabled?
A. The switch will run out of ACL hardware resources.
B. All DHCP requests will pass through the switch untested.
C. DHCP requests will be switched in the software, which may result in lengthy response times.
D. The DHCP server reply will be dropped and the client will not be able to obtain an IP address.
Answer: D 
44. Traffic classification using NBAR is configured using which IOS command?
A. router(config-if)#ip nbar protocol-discovery
B. router(config)#ip nbar port-map {protocol} [tcp|udp] {port-number} {port-number}
C. router(config-cmap)#match protocol {protocol-name}
D. router(config)#ip nbar pdlm {pdlm-file}
E. router(config-cmap)#match access-group {number}
F. router(config-pmap)#class nbar
Answer: C 
      350-001 
45. Refer to the exhibit. This network is using a classful routing protocol. Subnet 10.1.1.0/24 is sourced by Router
A and advertised to Router B. Router B then sends updates to Router C, which forwards updates to Router D,
which propagates routing information beyond. With regards to only the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet, what does Router D
advertise out its 10.1.4.0/24 interface? 
A. 10.1.1.0
B. 10.1.1.0/24
C. 10.0.0.0
D. 10.0.0.0/8
E. No update is sent regarding the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet
Answer: E 
46. Which two fundamental modifications, related to traffic forwarding, does MPLS introduce? (Choose two.)
A. IP lookup is performed on every hop within the MPLS core.
B. IP destination routing is reduced to label lookup within the MPLS network.
C. For unicast routing, labels are assigned to FECs (in other words, IP prefixes).
D. For multicast routing, labels are assigned to IP multicast groups.
Answer: BC 
47. Refer to the exhibit. Which of these correctly describes the use of uRPF to protect this trusted network from
Internet-based IP spoofing? 
     350-001 
A. it should be applied to s0 and it inspects inbound packets
B. it should be applied to s0 and it inspects outbound packets
C. it should be applied to s1 and it inspects inbound packets
D. it should be applied to s1 and it inspects outbound packets
Answer: A 
48. According to the definitions of different services in various RFCs, traffic with Expedited Forwarding per-hop
behavior should be marked as which of these?
A. DSCP decimal 36
B. IP ToS of 0xEF
C. IP experimental ECN
D. DSCP decimal 5
E. binary value of 101110
Answer: E 
49. What is the end result if a 10/100/1000 IEEE 802.3u Gigabit Ethernet link has autonegotiation enabled on the 
      350-001
switch port and the host NIC is statically configured for 100 Mb/s and full-duplex?
A. The link comes up, because autonegotiation sets the switch port to 100Mb/s and full-duplex.
B. The link does not come up because autonegotiation must be enabled or disabled on both sides of the link.
C. Autonegotiation sets the switch port to 100Mb/s and half-duplex.
D. Autonegotiation sets the switch port to the defaults of 1000Mb/s and full-duplex.
E. Autonegotiation sets the switch port to the defaults of 1000Mb/s and half-duplex.
Answer: C 
50. When the NTP peer statement is used in a Cisco IOS router, what functionality does this imply is also being
used on the router?
A. static client
B. symmetric active mode
C. static server
D. NTP broadcast client
Answer: B 
51. What is the destination IP address of the IGMPv2 membership report packet that a receiver sends to join group
239.1.1.1?
A. 224.0.0.1
B. 224.0.0.2
C. 239.1.1.1
D. the IP address of the host sending the membership report
Answer: C 
52. Prior to 802.1w, Cisco implemented a number of proprietary enhancements to 802.1D to improve convergence
in a Layer 2 network. Which of these statements is true?
A. Only PortFast and UplinkFast are specified in 802.1w; BackboneFast must be manually configured.
B. Only UplinkFast and BackboneFast are specified in 802.1w; PortFast must be manually configured.
C. Only PortFast is specified in 802.1w; UplinkFast and BackboneFast must be manually configured.
D. None of the proprietary Cisco enhancements are specified in 802.1w.
E. PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast are specified in 802.1w. 
  350-001
Answer: E
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